Hi Chetanaites
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For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning:
1. GAUCHE
(A) grotesque  (B) tactful  (C) rightful  (D) fashionable  (E) inane

2.DIATRIBE
(A) medley  (B) dilemma  (C) afterthought   (D) rebuttal  (E) praise

3.GAINSAY
(A) estimate  (B)corroborate  (C)forfeit   (D) expend (E)neglect

4. PROLIXITY
(A) proximity  (B) disinclination (C) circuitousness  (D)extremity  (E)terseness

5.AVID
(A) veracious  (B)forgetful  (C)insignificant   (D)turgid  (E)loath

6.REPINE
(A) endure grudgingly  (B)maintain composure  (C) express satisfaction  (D)arouse hostility (E) attract attention

7.SALIENCE
(A) insipidity  (B)immutability  (C)incongruity   (D)intransigence  (E)inconspicuousness

8.SEDATE
(A) unify  (B)immunize  (C)recuperate   (D)stimulate  (E)injure

9.APATHETIC
(A) healthy  (B)sincere  (C)enthusiastic   (D)untroubled  (E)hasty

10.DISLODGE
(A) restore  (B)secure  (C)wander   (D)transport  (E)anticipate

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:
(11)  REPUDIATE
(A)   hesitant  (B) neutrality  (C) admit  (D) polite  (E) incongruity

(12)  PRISTINE
(A) genial  (B) sullied  (C) evident   (D) imaginative (E) proximity

(13)  CONCEDE
(A) please  (B) apathy  (C) withstand   (D) considerate (E) disguise

(14)  PLACATE
(A) enrage  (B) administer (C) record (D) variegated  (E) fertilize

(15)  POPULAR
(A) treacherous  (B) glossy  (C) vivid   (D) multiply  (E) uncommon

(16)  FELICITOUS
(A) necessary  (B) muggy  (C) spatial  (D) inopportune (E) unnamed

(17)  AUSTERE
(A) swindle  (B) lavish  (C) global   (D) myopic  (E) nascent

(18)  WASTREL
(A) proximity  (B) hesitant  (C) dottish   (D) miser   (E) apathy

(19)  TEMPERATE
(A) inordinate  (B) resolution  (C) ambitious   (D) apologize  (E) heat

(20)  NEBULOUS
(A) restore  (B) distinct  (C) wander   (D) transport  (E) anticipate

Read the following text.  The passage contains some blank spaces.  Choose the sentence from the list A – I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces.  The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.
Observe the dilemma of the fungus; it is a plant, but it is a plant, but is possesses no chlorophyll. While all other plants put the sun’s energy to work for them combining the nutrients of ground and air into the body structure the chlorophyll ___21_____ . It finds it in those other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it ____22____.
In, this search for energy the fungus has become the earth’s major source of rot and decay. Wherever you see mold forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves turning to compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground, ----23-----. With the fungus action the earth would be poled high with ____24_____.
In fact, certain plants which contain resigns that are ___25____ specimen of the redwood, for the instance, can still be found ___26____
A.You are watching a fungus eating
B. Resting on the forest  floor centuries after having been brown down,
C.Responsible for the decomposition of much plant life
D.Fungus must look else where form an energy supply
E.Cannot produce their own store of energy.
F.The dead plant life of past centuries
G.At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi
H.Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
I.Toxic fungi will last indefinitely.

The mental health movement in the United States began with a period of considerable enlightenment. Dorothea Dix was chocked to find the mentally ill in jails and almshouses and crusaded for the establishment of asylums in which people could receive humane care in hospital-like environment and treatment, which might help restore them to sanity. Bu the mid 1800s, 20 states had established asylums, but during the late 1800s and early 1900s, in the face of economic depression, legislatures were unable to appropriate sufficient funds for decent care. Asylums became overcrowded and prison-like. Additionally, patients were more resistant to treatment than the pioneers in the mental health field had anticipated patients and other. Mental institutions became frightening and depressing places in which the rights of patients were all but forgotten.

These conditions continued until after World War II. At that time, new treatments were discovered for some major mental illnesses therefore considered untreatable (Penicillin for syphilis of the brain and insulin treatment for schizophrenia and depressions), and a succession of books, motion pictures and newspaper exposes called attention to the plight of the mentally ill. Improvements were made, and Dr. David Vail’s Humane Practices. Program is a beacon for today. But changes were slow in coming until the early 1960s at that time, the Civil Rights movement led lawyers to investigate America’s prisons, which were disproportionately populated by blacks, and they in turn followed prisoners into the only institution that were worse than the prisons-the hospital for the             criminally insane. The prisons were filled with angry young men who encouraged by legal support, were quick to demand their rights. The hospitals for the criminally insane, by contrast, were populated with people who were considered “crazy” and who were often kept obediently in their place through the use of server bodily restraints and large doses of major tranquilizers. The young cadre of public interest lawyers liked their role in the mental hospitals. The lawyers found population that was both passive and easy to champion. These were, after all, people who, unlike criminals, had done nothing wrong. And in many states, they were being kept in horrendous institutions, an injustice, which once exposed, was bound to shock the public and, particularly, the judicial conscience. Patient’s rights group’s successfully encouraged reform by lobbying in state legislatures.

Judicial interventions have had some definite positive effects, but there is growing awareness that courts cannot provide the standards and the review mechanisms that assure good patient care. The details of providing day-to day care simply cannot be mandated by a court,  so it is time to take from the courts the responsibility for delivery of mental health care and assurance of patient right and return it to the state mental health administrators to whom the mandate was originally given. Though it is difficult task, administrators must undertake to write rules and standards and to provide the training and surveillance to assure that treatment is given and patient rights are respected.

(27) The main purpose of the passage is to
A. discuss the influences of Dorothea Dix on the mental health movement
B. provide an historical perspective on problems of mental health care
C. increase public awareness of the plight of the mentally ill
D. shock the reader with vivid descriptions of asylums
E. describe the invention of new treatments of mental illness

(28) According to the passage, which of the following contributed to the deterioration of the asylum system
I. Lack of funds to maintain the asylums
II. Influx of more patients than the system was designed to handle
III. Lack of effective treatments for many mental illnesses.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I an III only
E. I, II and III

(29). It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following factors contributed to post-was reform of state mental institutions?
I   Heightened public awareness of the unacceptable conditions in the institutions
II. Discovery of effective treatments for illnesses previously considered  untreatable
III. Attempts by state legislatures to improve conditions in mental institutions
A.I only
B.III only
C.I and II only
D.II an III only
E.I,II and III

(30) The author’s attitude towards people who are patients in state institutions can best be described as
A. inflexible and insensitive
B. detached and neutral
C. understanding and sympathetic
D. enthusiastic and supportive
E.   uncaring and unemotional

(31) The passage provides information that would help answer all of the following questions EXCEPT
A. Who are some people who have had an important influence on the public health movement in the United States?
B. What were some of mental illness that were considered untreatable until the 1950s?
C. What were some of the new treatments for mental illness that were adopted in 1950s?
D. What were some of the most important legal cases that contributed to the new concern for patient’s rights?
E.  What effect did the Civil Rights movement has on the rights of prisoners?

(32) It can be inferred from the passage that, had the Civil Rights movement not prompted an investigation of prison conditions.
A. States would never have established asylums for the mentally ill.
B. New treatments for major mental illness would have likely remained untested
C. The Civil Rights movement in America would have been politically ineffective
D. Conditions in mental hospitals might have escaped judicial scrutiny
E. Many mentally ill prisoners would have been transferred from hospitals back to prisons

PART II
Q1.  Fill in the missing number in the sequence
1          2          5          ??          27       58
(a)  25   (b)  21  (c) 12   (d) 15  (e) 18

Q2.  In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is followed by an F next to it if the F is not followed by a D next to it? W    F    W    D    Q    M    W    F    D    M    F    W    F    F    W    Q    M    W    W
F    Q    W    F    D    F    W    A     M   F    W    F    M
(a) 3     (b) 5     (c) 6     (d) 4     (e) 8

Q3.  If FHQWUDO is coded as CENTRAL how will TXLFN be coded?
(a) SHEET       (b) TRIAL        (c) QUICK      (d) MIND        (e)CIGAR       

Q4.  Suppose the first and second letters in the word TOTALITARIAN were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc.  Print the letter that would then be the eighth letter counting from the right.
(a) T                  (b) I                   (c) N                (d) O                (e) A
Q5.  How would the decimal number 348 be represented in a base -6 number System?
(a) 1234                 (b) 1433          (c) 1342           (d) 1542             (e) 1654

Q6. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 6-bit word computer?
(a) 51                     (b) 61            (c) 65            (d) 57           (e) 67

Q7.  If n = 68 x 12 x 51, which of the following is NOT an integer?
(a) n / 152             (b)  n / 144         (c)    n / 153       (d)        n / 136             (e)        n / 102

Q8.  Which of the following is a power of 2?
a.         2096                b.         2048                c.         2188      d.         2444                e.         2136

Pick the odd one out
Q9.      (a)  ORACLE           (b) SYBASE         (c) INGRESS        (d)  DB2                (e)  JAVA

Q10.    (a)  PEOPLE SOFT     (b) HTTP        (c)  WAP     (d)       SMTP       (e)  ARP
Q11.The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
(a) (7m, 3m, 4m) (b) (4m, 5m, 4m)   (c) (4m, 6m, 8m)   (d)  (3m, 3m, 3m)     (e)  (12m, 6m, 8m)

Q12.The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the number of vertices, the number of edges and the number of faces respectively.
Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?
(a)  (4,8,8)       (b)  (8,12,12)   (c)  (8,12,6)  (d)  (4,4,6)   (e)  (12,6,4)

Q13.Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a)   -3, -3, -3, -3, -3, -3     (b)   3, -3, 3, -3, 3, -3     (c)  3, 0, -3, 3, 0, -3          (d) 3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3       (e) 3, 3, 3, 0, 3, 3

The three circles below represent the number of people eating Rice, Wheat and Corn.  Answer the next three questions based on the diagram


Q14.    How many more (or less) people eat Wheat than people who eat Rice?
(a)2      (b)3      (c)1      (d)4      (e)5

Q15.    What percentage of people eating Corn also eats Rice but not Wheat?
(a)12.8 (b) 17.4            (c)16.6 (d)18.6 (e)16

Q16.    What percentage of total people eats all three items?
(a)9      (b)3      (c)4      (d)5      (e) 6

The figure on the left represents number of dealers for a Company and the figure on the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998


Dealers (in "00s)

Q17.Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in dealers?
(a) 1998           (b) 1666           (c) 1994           (d) 1996           (e) 1888

Q18.What is the average number of dealers for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700           (b) 6800           (c) 8800           (d) 4800           (e) 7800

Q19.If 10% of dealers in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh dealers were made in 1999?
(a) 4500           (b) 4900           (c) 4600           (d) 4400           (e) 5400

Q20.A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as  
(Energy X Time X Time) / (Mass X Distance)
In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?
(a)Time        (b) Power         (c) Velocity      (d) Distance      (e) None

Q21. A can do a job in 6 days and A an B can do it together in 2 days .How many days will be taken by B to do the job alone?
(a)4      (b)6      (c)8      (d)3      (e)2

Q22. Which of these matrices is singular

        12     3                 3      5                   1     0                  10   12
      A =                      B =                     C =                      D =
         9      2                 9    15                   0     1                    3     4

(a)A     (b)B     (c)C     (d)D     (e) None

Q23. Match the following relationships:

(i)     Animal  – Lion                         (1)        Not a type of
(ii)     Bug – Reptile                            (2)        Part of
(iii)     Beagle – Dog                           (3)        A type of
(iv)     Piston – Engine             (4)        Superset of
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2       (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2       (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3    (d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4       (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

Q24. If @ stands for squaring and + stands for square root what is the value of
@ @ + (25)  -  + + @ (16)?
(a)622  (b)623  (c) 621 (d)629  (e)631

Q25. A sequence is defined recursively as
f(0) = -1;          f(1) = 1  
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2)      
What will be the value of f(5)?  
(a)4      (b)5      (c)2      (d)3      (e)1

Q26. What curve best suits the following data:
X             Y
0.99     0.00001
10.04   1.02
99.98   1.997
1000    3.0
9990    4.004
(a) y = logn x    (b) y = log10 x  (c) y = ex   (d) y = -log10 x  (e) y = - ex

Q27.A Two-dimensional array X(9,7) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's memory. Each element requires 2 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X (8,5)?
(a) 3243           (b) 3543           (c) 3087           (d) 3452           (e) 4321

Q28.Of the four straight lines A, B, C, D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set
A: 3x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x, C: 4x = 3y+5, D: y = 7x+3
(a) AC (b) AD (c) BC  (d) AB (e)BD  

Q29.Evaluate the expression
M (737,5) + R (5.8) + T (7.7) - R (3.4) where
M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation Operation
(a) 11   (b)13    (c) 12   (d)15    (e)16

Q30.Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for fuel saving in a car producing respectively 30%, 20% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net fuel efficiency achieved?
(a) 45%            (b) 54%           (c) 64%            (d) 49.6%        (e) 44%

Q31. The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:
      Hour                            Declination  
         2                                  8o 6’ 43.5”
         3                                  7o 53’ 6.1”
Find the declination of the moon at hour 4.
(a) 8o 22’ 13.5” (b) 7o 56’ 54.5”  (c) 9o 46’ 33.5”(d) 7o16’ 12.5” (e) 7o 39’ 28.7”

Q32.What equation best describes the curve shown below:

(a)y = tan x       (b) y + 3 = x     (c)y + x = 0      (d) y = Cos x    (e) y = x + 3

Q33. The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature between 3.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
(a)28 %     (b) 33%           (c) -43%          (d) -34.7%       (e) -44%

Q34.An aircraft takes off from A (72o N Lat, 40o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B (32o N Lat, 50o W Long). If the flying time is 11 hours what is the local time of landing at B?
(a) 5.40 AM     (b) 4.00 AM    (c) 7.00 AM     (d) 7.40AM     (e) 8.00AM

Q35. Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:
A    0    0    0    0    1    1    1    1
B    0    0    1    1    0    0    1    1
C    0    1    0    1    0    1    0    1
(A Ç B ) È C

Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the decimal value.       
(a) 88     (b) 87   (c) 86   (d) 89   (e) 76
Q36. A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per
millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a) 10.011 N    (b) 10.11 N      (c) 11.01 N      (d) 11.011 N    (e) 10.101 N

Q37.The productivity of a group of workers is given by the function  
P(N) = 4000 vN, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage change in productivity if the strength of the group is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%           (b) 0.25%        (c) 0.75%         (d) 1%   (e) 2%

A power cable is to be run from a power plant on the bank of a river 900 meters wide to a factory that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
(a) 450             (b) 1800           (c) 2800           (d) 2100           (e) 2700

PART III

Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

(1) Mr. Ramachandran must accommodate seven tour group passengers in two four-person cabins on the luxury liner ‘ The Southern Princess’. Each passenger in a cabin must be able to converse with at least one other passenger, though not necessarily in the same language
A, a Tamilian, also speaks Kannada and Malayalam
B and F are Malayalam and speak only that language.
C, a Tamilian, also speaks Kannada
D and G are Kannadigas and speak only Malayalam
E, a Tamilian, also speaks Malayalam
Malayalis are to share rooms with Kannadigas

1. Which combination of passengers in one of the cabins will result in a rooming arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins?  
(A) B, C, F
(B) D, E, G
(C) A, D, E, G
(D) C, D, E, G
(E) A, B, C, F

2. Which CANNOT be true, given the conditions as stated?
(I) C cannot room with A
(II) A cabin containing three persons must include A
(III) E must always room with a Malayali
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

3. How many combinations of c
abin mates satisfy all conditions?
(A) 2    (B) 3    (C) 4   (D) 5   (E) 6

4. If E objects to sharing a cabin with A, with whom can Mr. Ramachandran place him in order to arrive at an arrangement that satisfies all conditions?
(I) D and G, with no fourth cabin mate
(II) B and F with no fourth cabin mate
(III) C, D and G
(A) I only.
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and II only
(E) Neither I, II nor III

(2) Seven kabbadi players are to be awarded their titles for winning a Inter-University kabbadi match at a special dinner. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table. Amit and Gurcharan have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit. Bhaskar will receive the most valuable kabbadi player’s trophy and so must be in the center chair to facilitate the presentation. Chandrashekhar and Dilip, who were bitter rivals for the position of center during the entire kabbadi season, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as is convenient. Ebrahim and Feroze  are best friends and want to sit together.
1. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?
(A) Chandrashekhar
(B) Dilip
(C) Gurcharan
(D) Feroze
(E) Amit

2. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?
(A) Chandrashekhar and Feroze
(B) Bhaskar and Dilip
(C) Ebrahim and Amit
(D) Gurcharan  and Dilip
(E) Ebrahim and Chandrashekhar

3.  Which of the following pairs may not occupy the seats on either side of Bhaskar?
(A) Feroze and Dilip
(B) Dilip and Ebrahim
(C) Ebrahim and Gurcharan
(D) Feroze and Chandrashekhar
(E) Ebrahim and Chandrashekhar

4. If neither Ebrahim nor Dilip is seated next to Bhaskar, how many different seating arrangements are possible?
(A) 1    (B) 2    (C) 3   (D) 4    (E) 5

(3) During the Vedic period, in ancient India, only two forms of marriage were recognized. In Dhrushtanaya marriages, several brothers marry a single woman, while in Purdanneva marriages, several sisters marry a single man. Historical records have revealed that all members of a given married group are regarded as the parents of any children of the marriage. Marriage between male and female children of the same parents if forbidden.
Erava is a son of Asurya
Gushni is a daughter of Barade
Furtila s a daughter of Chiri
Erava, Furtila, Munar and Nagru have a daughter, Haravi
Erava and Furtila have the same paternal grandmother, Qurati
Asurya and Barade are the only grandfathers of Harava, Chiri, Jariva, Karava, and Larasik are the only grandmothers of Harava
No one has married more than once; all children were born in wedlock

1. Gushni is a sister of:
(A) Nagru only
(B) Munar only
(C) Erava
(D) Furtila
(E) Erava or Furtila, but not both.

2. Nagru is a sibling of
I. Munar only
II. Munar and Erava
III. Munar and Furtila
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II or III, but not both
(E) Neither I, II nor III

3. One of Qurati’s children may be
(A) Asurya
(B) Chiri
(C) Jariva
(D) Karava
(E) Munar

4. Which of the following is an offspring of a Purdanneva marriage
(A) Haravi
(B) Erava
(C) Asurya
(D) Barade
(E) Jariva


TCS TALENT TEST  18
Part I
1.B
2.B
3.A
4.E
5.D
6.A
7.B
8.C
9.B
10.C
11.C
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.E
16.D
17.B
18.D
19.A
20.B
21.D
22.G
23.A
24.F
25.I
26.B
27 B
28 E
29 C
30 C
31 D
32 D

Part II
1.C
2.D
3.C
4.B
5.C
6.B
7.A
8.B
9.E
10.A
11.A
12.C
13.B
14.C
15.B
16.E
17.D
18.C
19.B
20.D
21.D
22.B
23.C
24.C
25.C
26.B
27.C
28.A
29.C
30.D
31.E
32.E
33.D
34.C
35.B
36.A
37.A
38.B

PART III
1.        (1)D            (2)E              (3)C         (4)D
2.        (1)D            (2)C             (3)C         (4)B
3.        (1)D            (2)D              (3)A        (4)B

(Paper Submitted By : Priya)